Why is it that exit polls since 1988 have ALL overstated the Dem vote? [View All]

Could it have something to do with the millions of votes spoiled and NOT counted in Democratic minority precincts?

Remember Florida 2000? Originally the Exit polls called it for Gore.
Later, we find out that 110,000 overvotes and 65,000 undervotes were not counted, the vast majority of them for GORE.
Not counted.

Of course, the liberal media doesn't report it. Justy like they didn't report the thousands of blacks who were disenfranchised.

Remember Palm Beach County?
Thousands of Jews voted for Buchanan.
Not counted.

Remember Duval County?
At least 28,000 overpunched votes. In black precincts.
Not counted.

Remember Volusia County?
16,022 votes dropped from Gore's total and spread out among third pary candidates. THIS DROP WAS THE REASON FOX AND THE OTHER NETWORKS SWITCHED THE FL CALL TO BUSH. LATER THAT EVENING, IT'S FOUND TO BE A DIEBOLD COMPUTER "GLICH". RIGHT.
GORE VOTES COUNTED. NOT.

How about 2004 Ohio? Greg Palast has written about the thousands of spoiled minority ballots for Kerry.
Not counted.

These voters were surely exit-polled. They all said they voted for Dukakis or Clinton or Gore or Kerry. They did. But...
NOT counted.

Perhaps that's a start in explaining the discrepancies.
I'm sure there are plenty of other reasons.

How about the toucshscreens and the optiscans?
Hopefully, someone, somewhere, is compiling a detailed record of how many "gliches" proved favorable to Bush - and how many to the Kerry.

Assuming that we find that 60% of the thousands of gliches nationwide favor Bush, then it's a 99.9999% certainty that this could NOT just be due to chance.

IS IT JUST A COINCIDENCE THAT THE DEMOCRATS ALWAYS DO BETTER IN THE EXIT POLLS THAN IN THE VOTE TALLIES?

AMERICA'S DIRTY LITTLE SECRET IS NO LONGER A SECRET.

OCCAM'S RAZOR = F-R-A-U-D
STATISTICAL ANALYSIS = F-R-A-U-D

QUE BONO?