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Reply #16: Here are some answers [View All]

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Home » Discuss » Topic Forums » Election Reform Donate to DU
Andy_Stephenson Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Fri Jan-07-05 02:02 PM
Response to Original message
16. Here are some answers
I know that most electronic voting machines have no paper trail and that they are made by Diebold.

Diebold, Sequoia, ES&S, Hart Intercivic...all make BALLOT free machines. When talking use the right term Paper Ballot not Paper Trail.

I have read assorted literature about how it would be easy to hack these machines--my question is how would one go about PROVING they were hacked?

The software is such that if it were "hacked" you would never be able to tell. The audit log can be manipulated so there is not evidence of tampering.

Would there be a forensic trail in the machines themselves?

No

HAVE the machines been examined (and if they were would anyone be able to tell if they were hacked?)

No

Has Diebold allowed their software to be openly examined?
(I have heard conflicting reports on this)

No they have not...the only software that has been examined is the software found by Bev Harris.

There was no conclusive "proof" of out and out fraud yesterday, just IMO serious irregularities that could prove fraudulent (I have not read the Conyers report however)

There was out and out fraud. I found fraud...I have seen the evidence fraud was rampant in the election. Don't buy into the "no fraud" argument.

I guess my point is -- without a whistleblower (or several whistleblowers)with concrete proof that they had a hand in the hacking, how could the fraudsters even get caught?

They may not say anything right now...but there will come a time

I know nothing about hacking, or code, so I am trying to understand how it can ever be proven that the voting machines were hacked.

It can be done...I am not a code expert...but on the Diebold system it could prove to be very difficult to prove.

I did find it alarming that most Reps yesterday didn't present hacking as a possibility--is it because they can't prove it, or is it because they don't feel that was the way the GOP cheated?

I have my own theory and if you PM me I will tell you offline from this thread.

Maybe this isn't the forum to ask this (I mean maybe this should be posted in the lounge or general discussion--if so move it please)

Right forum./..right time
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