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Can someone answer this for me (TX mid-decade redistricting)...

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Richardo Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Wed Jun-28-06 03:10 PM
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Can someone answer this for me (TX mid-decade redistricting)...
...why was the mid-decade redistricting allowed at all? AS I understand it, after the 2000 census, the Texas legislature declined to redistrict and it was left to the courts to redistrict.

How then can they decide mid-decade to redistrict again? How is this not against the Constitution?

(PS: I know there's an answer to this, or it would have been brought up in court. I just have not heard anyone address it.)
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Tiggeroshii Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Wed Jun-28-06 03:12 PM
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1. The States Legislature can do whatever they want
Which means that hey, if Dems win the California Governorship this year, why don't they do a little redistricting here for a few more gains in 08?
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Name removed Donating Member (0 posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Wed Jun-28-06 03:44 PM
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NoPasaran Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Wed Jun-28-06 04:26 PM
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3. It happened because Tom DeLay wanted it to happen
There was never any secret about it.
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Awsi Dooger Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Wed Jun-28-06 09:10 PM
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4. Republicans tooks control of the Texas state legislature in 2002
That's what allowed the opportunity and DeLay made sure they took it.

You'll see much more emphasis on state legislatures as a result of the SCOTUS ruling. We did very well in that regard in 2004. Prior to that the Republicans had been making inroads every year. Last I checked it was basically even, something like 19 or 20 states apiece with one party having control of both chambers of a state legislature.
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